JEE Advanced Maths

JEE Advanced Maths · Probability

Is P(at least one six) just n × 1/6?

No. Adding 16\tfrac{1}{6} for each throw double-counts the outcomes where more than one six appears, and the sum is not capped at 1 — at seven throws it gives 76\tfrac{7}{6}, a probability greater than 1, which is impossible. The clean route is the complement: count the single way it fails. There is one way to get no six at all, its probability is a tidy product across independent throws, and P(at least one)=1P(none)P(\text{at least one}) = 1 - P(\text{none}).

The clean statement to hold is: for "at least one", never sum the per-try chances — subtract P(none)P(\text{none}) from 1. JEE Advanced punishes the additive instinct through order statistics (2021 Paper 1 Q5 on the maximum, 2021 Paper 1 Q6 on the minimum) and reliability thresholds (2020 Paper 2 Q2, the missiles problem).

Ready to fix this? The Probability lesson works through this misconception and the others in Probability, one altitude at a time.

How to spot it in your own work

  • You wrote "P(at least one)=n×pP(\text{at least one}) = n \times p", adding the per-try probability once for each trial.
  • Your answer for a probability came out greater than 1 and you did not stop.
  • You tried to enumerate every way "at least one" can happen instead of the single way it cannot.
  • You added probabilities for events that are not mutually exclusive (the trials can both succeed).

An exam question that triggers it

Here is a question that tests this misconception head-on, in the spirit of JEE Advanced 2021 Paper 1 Q5:

A fair die is thrown seven times. What is the probability of getting at least one six?

The misconception answer adds a 16\tfrac{1}{6} per throw: 7×16=761.177 \times \tfrac{1}{6} = \tfrac{7}{6} \approx 1.17. But a probability can never exceed 1, so the additive rule has refuted itself. The correct move is the complement — the one clean failure is no six on any throw:

P(at least one six)=1(56)7=1781252799360.721.P(\text{at least one six}) = 1 - \left(\tfrac{5}{6}\right)^7 = 1 - \frac{78125}{279936} \approx 0.721.

About 72%, comfortably below 1 — the complement always gives a sensible probability exactly where the sum cannot.

Why students fall for this

Adding feels like the way to combine "chances of a six", and for two or three throws the result (26\tfrac{2}{6}, 36\tfrac{3}{6}) looks plausible enough to pass unchallenged. The rule only visibly breaks when stretched far enough to cross 1, by which point the student has long trusted it. Worse, the additive rule has no built-in cap, so a student can produce an impossible probability without noticing.

Fischbein's work on primary intuitions in probability, and Tversky and Kahneman's on disjunction-event misjudgement, both find that students under-use the complement rule even when it is the only tractable route. Being told the multiplication rule rarely dislodges the addition habit. What dislodges it is pushing the student's own rule to 76\tfrac{7}{6} and letting them see it produce an impossible number — then offering 1P(none)1 - P(\text{none}) as the repair.

The fix: For at-least-one, subtract P(none) from 1

The complement of "at least one" is "none". There is exactly one way to get none — every trial fails — so its probability is a clean product across independent trials, and P(at least one)=1P(none)P(\text{at least one}) = 1 - P(\text{none}). For nn independent trials each succeeding with probability pp:

P(at least one)=1(1p)n.P(\text{at least one}) = 1 - (1 - p)^n.

This never climbs past 1, because (1p)n(1-p)^n always lies between 0 and 1. Adding the per-try probabilities is right only when the events are mutually exclusive, that is when they cannot both occur — which repeated trials are not. So whenever you read "at least one", flip to the complement instead of summing.

Worked example

Take a fair die thrown twice, and find P(at least one six)P(\text{at least one six}) both ways.

  1. The additive attempt. 16+16=26=1236\tfrac{1}{6} + \tfrac{1}{6} = \tfrac{2}{6} = \tfrac{12}{36}. It looks harmless at two throws, so the rule survives — but watch it at seven throws, where 7×16=76>17 \times \tfrac{1}{6} = \tfrac{7}{6} > 1, which is impossible.
  2. The one failure path. The single way to get no six at all is "not a six" on both throws. On one throw P(not a six)=56P(\text{not a six}) = \tfrac{5}{6}.
  3. Multiply across independent throws. P(no six at all)=(56)2=2536P(\text{no six at all}) = \left(\tfrac{5}{6}\right)^2 = \tfrac{25}{36}.
  4. Subtract from 1.
    P(at least one six)=12536=11360.31.P(\text{at least one six}) = 1 - \tfrac{25}{36} = \tfrac{11}{36} \approx 0.31.
  5. Compare. The complement gives 1136\tfrac{11}{36}, while the additive rule gave 1236\tfrac{12}{36} — already too big by 136\tfrac{1}{36} at two throws, exactly the double-counted "both sixes" outcome. The gap only widens, until the sum breaks past 1.

The same framework settles JEE Advanced 2020 Paper 2 Q2: to make P(at least one hit)0.95P(\text{at least one hit}) \ge 0.95 when each missile hits with probability 0.750.75, solve 1(0.25)n0.951 - (0.25)^n \ge 0.95, i.e. (0.25)n0.05(0.25)^n \le 0.05. Since (0.25)2=0.0625(0.25)^2 = 0.0625 and (0.25)3=0.0156(0.25)^3 = 0.0156, the minimum is n=3n = 3 missiles — found through the complement, never a sum of per-missile chances.

Find out if this is costing you marks

The 10-minute diagnostic checks for this pattern (and four others) using AQA-style GCSE Higher items. Free, no signup, anonymous.

Common questions

When is it fine to add probabilities?

Only when the events are mutually exclusive — they cannot both happen. Then P(AB)=P(A)+P(B)P(A \cup B) = P(A) + P(B) with no overlap to subtract. Repeated trials are not mutually exclusive (you can get two sixes), so adding double-counts. For "at least one" across trials, reach for 1P(none)1 - P(\text{none}) instead.

Why is the complement so much easier than counting cases?

"At least one" has many cases — exactly one success, exactly two, and so on — but "none" has a single case: every trial fails. That one case is a clean product of independent factors. Subtracting it from 1 collapses the whole messy sum into one line, which is why the complement is the standard tool.

How do I know my answer is sensible?

A probability must lie between 0 and 1. The complement form 1(1p)n1 - (1-p)^n automatically does, because (1p)n(1-p)^n is between 0 and 1. If an additive method ever hands you a value above 1 — like 76\tfrac{7}{6} — that is proof the method, not the arithmetic, is wrong.

How does this trap show up in JEE counting questions?

JEE Advanced 2021 Paper 1 Q5 asks for P(max of three81)P(\text{max of three} \ge 81), which is 1P(all three<81)1 - P(\text{all three} < 81), and 2021 Paper 1 Q6 mirrors it with P(min40)=1P(all three>40)P(\text{min} \le 40) = 1 - P(\text{all three} > 40). Both are order statistics where direct enumeration is hopeless and the complement is the only clean route — add the per-draw chances and the question is unanswerable.

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Is P(at least one six) = n × 1/6? The complement trap in JEE Advanced | JEE Advanced Maths